EyeBrock EyeBrock:
As the Duke of Normandy he might have had some requirements of loyalty to Phillip, but that didn't stop him from attacking other French domains as did William II and ignoring French Kings, and England was not a vassal state to France. William II son Henry paid no such homage from the Norman possessions in France to the weak French kings and scared the shite out of most of France.
The Plantagenet kings of England actively fought lengthy wars in France to take further chunks of French soil to become blessed Blighty.
So you agree that as Duke of Normandy, he had 'requirments' (as per usual in the Medieval world of status) of loyalty to the French king. Great. Why dismiss it as 'unfounded nonsense' in the beginning? Interesting.
I never said England was a "vassal state to France". I declared that because of loyalties bound as a Duke, that perhaps the French king might percieve William I's English kingdom as a 'possession' for France which I have not yet recieved a satisfactory counter-argument for. Maybe the French kings believed that England was their posession because of William, maybe not. Which brings us to why England invades France.
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William II son Henry paid no such homage from the Norman possessions in France to the weak French kings and scared the shite out of most of France.
The Plantagenet kings of England actively fought lengthy wars in France to take further chunks of French soil to become blessed Blighty.
This is irrelevant, so don't try to feed me your notion of history here. I already stated above concerning English kings and their claims to territory on France due to lineage and marriage. You chose to ignore it.
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I can't recall any further large scale or successful invasions of England by French kings/dukes or others trying to enforce any so-called vassal-dom after William I (1066 and all that). That's why the Channel islands remain the last parts of the old kingdom of France that are still British. I don't see any French possessions in England's sphere of influence.
Then you clearly, as indicated before, don't know anything about Medieval terminology or history. Claiming a territory wasn't just about invading another land, it was because of marriage alliances and lineage. Why do you think England could claim so much territory in France? Marriage, lineage....you speak so much about England taking so much land in France and can't grasp as to its foundations. Why do you think a Norman Duke claimed the English throne? Why Rolo was granted land in Normandy by the king of France, what a vassal is, its importance to a king. While you dig out your history book on that....
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To say England was a vassal state of France is not only simplistic, it's wrong.
Again, I never said England was a vassal state and you are twisting things around. Not only is that desparation, its unethical and you haven't proven me wrong on anything of the sort.
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But hey Tman, you can get things wrong and still be a clever chap, really!
Back at you. You can be ignorant on Medieval history, English or not and still be a clever chap (most of the time) really!.
tman. I'm not getting into this anymore. I have my views on this that are supported in history. You are wrong.